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GENERAL STUDIES (Prelims) TEST – 2
                                                                                                    December 20, 2017


UPSC Civil Services Exam Prelims 2018

1. The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union in which among the following posts?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet Secretary
(d) Speaker of LokSabha

2. Which of the following is/are the objectives of ‘e- Courts’ mission mode project?
1. To assist judicial administration in reducing the pendency of cases
2. To provide transparency of information to the litigants
3. To provide judges with easy access to legal and judicial databases

Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. With reference to the credit rating of urban local bodies, consider the following statements:
1. The ratings are assigned based on infrastructural amenities available in the city.
2. Cities under Smart City mission have been exempted from the ratings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. With reference to the Law Commission of India (LCI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It is established for a period of three years.
3. It submits its report to Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct in reference to the Legislative Council?
1. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-tenth of the total strength of the legislative assembly.
2. The council is subject to dissolution during emergency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which among the following is the final authority for deciding disqualifications of members of municipalities?
(a) State Election commission
(b) Governor
(c) Chairperson of Muncipality.
(d) Authority determined by state legislature.

7. Consider the following statements regarding enactment of laws on matters in the State list by the Parliament:
1. It can be requested by a state only after consultation with the Governor.
2. Such laws can be amended only by the concerned state legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8.. With respect to the Central Secretariat, consider the following statements:
1. It is a conglomeration of various ministries/departments of the central government.
2. Its main task is to implement policies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. The Governor can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to
(a) Chief Justice of High Court
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of India

10. The distribution of powers between Centre and State extends to which of the following spheres?
1. Judicial
2. Administrative
3. Financial
4. Legislative
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. Which reference to the Prithvi-II Missile, consider the following statements:
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
2. It has a strike range of more than 1000 km.
3. It has recently been inducted into Indian armed forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

12. Consider the following statements in context of Permanent LokAdalats:
1. They take up cases related to only public utility services..
2. Award of the permanent LokAdalats are final and binding on all the parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following factors limit the parliamentary control over the executive?
1. Growth of delegated legislation.
2. Frequent promulgation of ordinances.
3. Examination by financial committees after expenditure has been incurred.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3


14. With reference to State Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:
1. They are collectively responsible to the state legislative assembly.
2. Constitution provides for the system of legal responsibility for the ministers of state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution does not provide the procedure for selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.
2. When there is no majority in LokSabha, then the President must call for re- elections to the LokSabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to administration of tribal areas under sixth schedule?
(a) The tribal areas under the sixth schedule do no fall under the executive authority of the state concerned.
(b) The President is empowered to organise and reorganise the tribal areas.
(c) Each autonomous tribal area has a district council with nominated and elected members.
(d) The district councils are empowered to collect land revenue with the assent of the Governor only.

17. Consider the following statements regarding Deputy Prime Minister:
1. There is no mention of the office in the Indian Constitution.
2. The salaries and allowances are determined by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Which of the following departments exist independently without any ministerial control?
1. Department of Space
2. Department of Atomic Energy
3. Department of Defence Production

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

19. With respect to the executive relations between the Centre and States, consider the following statements:
1. In respect of matters enumerated in Concurrent List, the executive power rests with the States.
2. Failure to comply with executive directions given by Centre to a State is a ground for imposition of emergency in a state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. With reference to the Committee on Public Undertakings, consider the following statements.
1. It consists of members from both the houses of Parliament.
2. A Minister is not eligible to become a member of the committee.
3. The committee is elected for a term of one year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Which among the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime Minister?
(a) Political Affairs Committee
(b) Economic Affairs Committee
(c) Appointments Committee
(d) Parliamentary Affairs Committee

22. With reference to Governor, consider the following statements:
1. He should not be a member of the state legislature.
2. He should not hold any office of profit.
3. He is not eligible for reappointment after expiry of his term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

23. Reverse charge mechanism, recently seen in news, refers to:
(a) a bacteria based genome editing tool.
(b) a situation where the tax on input is more than tax on output.
(c) a type of physical interaction that occurs between electrically charged particles.
(d) a mechanism where the recipient of the goods or services is liable to pay GST instead of the supplier.

24 . With reference to the Global Green Growth Institution (GGGI), which of the statements is/are correct?
1. It aims to promote inclusive and sustainable economic growth in developing and emerging countries.
2. It was established at the Rio+20 United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25 . Consider the following statements regarding ‘Innovate in India(i3) Mission’:
1. It aims to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the biopharmaceutical sector.
2. It will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWERS & EXPLANATION
GENERAL STUDIES (Prelims) TEST – 2


1. The president of India is the part of the Union executive. It has been stated in Article 53 (1) of the Constitution that “the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be
exercised by him directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution". In reality, the President exercises these powers through the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
Minister.

2. The Indian judiciary comprises of nearly 15,000 courts situated in approximately 2,500 court complexes throughout the country. Under the e-Courts MMP, it is proposed to implement ICT in Indian judiciary in 3 phases over a period of 5 years. The MMP aims to develop, deliver, install, and implement automated decision-making and decision-support systems in 700 courts across Delhi, Bombay, Kolkata and Chennai; 900 courts across 29 State/ Union Territory capitals; and 13,000 district and subordinate courts across the Nation.
The objectives of the project are:
1. To help judicial administration in streamlining their day-to-day activities
2. To assist judicial administration in reducing the pendency of cases
3. To provide transparency of information to the litigants
4. To provide judges with easy access to legal and judicial databases
Hence, all statements are correct.

3. Credit ratings are assigned based on assets and liabilities of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), revenue streams, resources available for capital investments, Double Entry Accounting practice and other governance
practices. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Ministry of Urban Development is promoting Credit Rating of cities as one of the five Transformational Reforms under which about 500 cities and towns. 94 of the 500 cities included in Smart City Mission and
Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) have obtained such ratings which are necessary for issuing Municipal Bonds for mobilization of resources. These ratings, ranging from AAA to
D, will help determine how these cities, which are part of the Smart City Mission and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), raise money and on what terms. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

4. Law Commission of India (LCI) is neither a constitutional nor a statutory body. The first LCI was established in 1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay which
recommended codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code and a few other matters.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 for a three year term. The term of this Commission was established as three years (which by convention has been followed till
date).Hence, statement 2 is correct.
LCI submitted its report to Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence, statement 3 is also not correct.
Law Commission of India is established by an order of central government. Who will head the law commission is completely at the discretion of the Government. However, it is a convention that a
retired judge of Supreme Court heads India’s Law Commission. Further, the States also can constitute their own law commissions.

5. Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of legislative council are indirectly elected.
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the
assembly of the concerned state. Though the Constitution has fixed maximum and minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Like the RajyaSabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber. The Legislative Council shall not be subject to dissolution. But one-third of its members shall retire on the expiry of every second year [Art.172 (2)]. It will thus, be a permanent body like the Council of States. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

6. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as or for being a member of a municipality if he is so:
(a) under any law for the time being in force for the purposes of elections to the legislature of the state concerned; or
(b) under any law made by the state legislature.
However, no person shall be disqulaified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years.
Further, all questions of disqualifiications are to be referred to such authority as the state legislature determines.

7. o Both statements are not correct.
o When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A single
state can also request the Parliament A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions. However, any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect
in its legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by the legislatures of the concerned states.
 . o The effect of passing a resolution under the above provision is that the Parliament becomes entitled to legislate with respect to a matter for which it has no power to make a law. On the other hand, the state
legislature ceases to have the power to make a law with respect to that matter. The resolution operates as abdication or surrender of the power of the state legislature with respect to that matter and it is
placed entirely in the hands of Parliament which alone can then legislate with respect to it.


8. o Statement 1 is correct: The Central Secretariat consists of departments or ministries whose administrative heads are designated as Secretaries and whose political heads are ministers. The
Secretariat works as a single unit with collective responsibility as in the case of the Council of Ministers.
Under existing rules, each secretariat department is required to consult any other department that may be interested or concerned before disposing of a case. Secretaries, thus, are secretaries to the
Government as a whole and not to any particular minister.
o Statement 2 is not correct: The Central Secretariat system in India is based on two principles:
(a) The task of policy formulation needs to be separated from policy implementation.
(b) Maintaining Cadre of Officers operating on the tenure system is a prerequisite to the working of the Secretariat system.
The Central Secretariat is a policy making body of the government and is not to undertake work of execution, unless necessitated by the lack of official agencies to perform certain tasks.


9. Article 156 (Term of Office of Governor)
(a) The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
(b) The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
(c) Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years
from the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

10.  The Constitution provides for the distribution of all powers- legislative, financial and executive/administrative between the Centre and States. There is no division of judicial powers between
the Centre and States as India has a system of integrated judiciary.
The legislative relations between Centre and states are laid down under Article 245 to 255; administrative relations from Article 256 to 263; financial relations from Article 264 to 293.

11.  It is a surface-to-surface missile, which has a strike range of around 350 km. It is thrusted by liquid propulsion twin engines.
It was inducted into Indian armed forces in 2003. It is the first missile to have been developed by the DRDO under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.

12. The Legal services Authorities Act, 1987, which had established LokAdalats, did not, at first, establish permanent LokAdalats.It was the Amendment Act of 2002 that enabled the establishment of the first permanent LokAdalat with a chairman and two members for providing compulsory pre-litigative mechanism for conciliation and settlement of cases relating to public utility services.
The basic features of a permanent LokAdalat are identical to a LokAdalat. There are, however, certain modifications made. The key difference is that a typical LokAdalat can only be summoned occasionally and not on a daily basis, a permanent LokAdalat is an established system which is operational throughout just like any other court or tribunal.
Features of permanent LokAdalats:
1. It is organized under district judge or any other judge rank of district judge.
2. They take up cases related to only public utility services. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
3. Award of the permanent LokAdalats are final and binding on all the parties. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

13.  The parliamentary control over government and administration in India is more theoretical than practical. The following factors are responsible for this:
(a) The Parliament has neither time nor expertise to control the administration which has grown in volume as well as complexity.
(b) Parliament’s financial control is hindered by the technical nature of the demands for grants. The parliamentarians being laymen cannot understand them properly and fully.
(c) The legislative leadership lies with the Executive and it plays a significant role in formulating policies.
(d) The very size of the Parliament is too large and unmanageable to be effective.
(e) The majority support enjoyed by the Executive in the Parliament reduces the possibility of effective criticism.
(f) The financial committees like Public Accounts Committee examines the public expenditure after it has been incurred by the Executive. Thus, they do post mortem work.
(g) The increased recourse to ‘guillotine’ reduced the scope of financial control.
(h) The growth of ‘delegated legislation’ has reduced the role of Parliament in making detailed laws and has increased the powers of bureaucracy.
(i) The frequent promulgation of ordinances by the president dilutes the Parliament’s power of legislation.
(j) The Parliament’s control is sporadic, general and mostly political in nature.
(k) Lack of strong and steady opposition in the Parliament, and a setback in the parliamentary behaviour and ethics, have also contributed to the ineffectiveness of legislative control over administration in India. Hence, all the statements are correct.

14. The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility. Article 164 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively
responsible to the legislative assembly of the state. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the legislative assembly for all their acts of omission and commission. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
As at the centre, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of the ministers of state. It is not required that an order of the governor for a public act should be counter- signed by a minister. Moreover, the courts are barred from enquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the ministers to the governor. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

15. o Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.
o Statement 2 is not correct: In accordance with the convention of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the LokSabha as the Prime
Minister. But when no party has a clear majority in the LokSabha then the President may exercise is personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the
President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the LokSabha as the Prime

16. The Constitution, under sixth schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The tribal areas in the four states have been constituted as autonomous districts. But, they donot fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned as majority of powers with respect to tribal areas are in hands of
Governor. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts. Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries. If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor. Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes. It is in the case when district council is making regulations for the control of
money lending and trading by non-tribals, such regulations require the assent of the governor. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

17.  o Statement 1 is correct: There is no mention of Deputy Prime Minister, Minister of State or Deputy Minister in the Constitution.
o Statement 2 is not correct: Salaries and allowances of all Ministers (Deputy Prime Minister, Cabinet Minister, Minister of State etc.) are determined by the Parliament.

18. Central Government (Independent Departments)
1. Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
2. Department of Space
3. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Department of Defence Production comes under the Ministry of Defence. Hence, option 3 is not correct.

19.  Both the statements are correct.
The executive power has been divided between the Centre and the states on the lines of the distribution of legislative powers, except in few cases. In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the
state legislatures have power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List), the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre. Therefore, a law on a concurrent subject, though enacted by the
Parliament, is to be executed by the states except when the Constitution or the Parliament has directed
otherwise. The Constitution has placed two restrictions on the executive power of the states in order to give ample scope to the Centre for exercising its executive power in an unrestricted manner. Thus, the executive power of every state is to be exercised in such a way (a) as to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament and any existing law which apply in the state; and (b) as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of executive power of the Centre in the state. In both the cases, the executive power of the Centre extends to giving of such directions to the state as are necessary for the purpose. The sanction behind these directions of the Centre is coercive in nature. Thus, Article 365 says that where any state
has failed to comply with (or to give effect to) any directions given by the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried
on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It means that, in such a situation, the President’s rule can be imposed in the state under Article 356.

20.  All the statements are correct.
The Committee on Public Undertakings is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 22 Members—fifteen elected by the LokSabha and seven by the RajyaSabha, from amongst their Members, according to the
principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. A Minister is not eligible to
become a Member of the Committee. If a Member after his election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment. The term of
the Committee does not exceed one year.

21. The following four are the important cabinet committees:
1. The Political Affairs Committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
2. The Economic Affairs Committee directs and coordinates the governmental activities in the economic sphere.
3. Appointments Committee decides all higher level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks and Financial Institutions.
4. Parliamentary Affairs Committee looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament.
The first three committees are chaired by the Prime Minister and the last one by the Home Minister.
Of all the Cabinet Committees, the most powerful is the Political Affairs Committee, often described as a “Super-Cabinet”.

22. Statement 1 is correct: He should not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any such person is appointed as governor, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as the governor.
Statement 2 is correct: He should not hold any other office of profit.
Statement 3 is not correct: A Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same state


23. Under the reverse charge mechanism in the GST regime, the liability to pay tax is of the recipient of goods & services rather than the supplier when the goods or services have been received from an
unregistered person.
o Usually, the supplier is liable to pay tax and avail input tax credit, if applicable, but in this case the mechanism is reversed.
o Also, the GST Council has specified 12 categories of services for reverse charge that include radio taxi, services provided by an individual advocate or firm of advocates etc.
o If these services are provided through an e-commerce operator, it will be liable to pay the tax. No separate list for reverse charge for goods has been issued by the CBEC.
o If the supply of goods or services or both is exempt under GST, then the recipient is not liable to pay tax under the reverse charge mechanism.
o However, the CGST law mandates registration for those who are required to pay tax under reverse charge, even if their turnover is less than the threshold limit of Rs 20 lakh.

24. Global Green Growth Institution (GGGI) is a Seoul (South Korea) based inter-governmental organization dedicated to promoting inclusive and sustainable economic growth in developing and emerging countries.
The organization aims to promote green growth, a growth paradigm characterized by a balance of economic growth and environmental sustainability. Established in 2012, at the Rio+20 United Nations
Conference on Sustainable Development. India is not a founding member but is associated with research work. Hence, both the statements are correct.


25. The first ever Industry-Academia mission to accelerate biopharmaceutical development in India was launched by the government. The program named as Innovate in India (i3) aims to create an enabling ecosystem to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the sector. Hence, statement
1 is correct